I found this:
32 Copyright 2001 by MJM
REVIEW ARTICLE
The Role of Testosterone in Aggression
Katherine Simpson *† , B.Sc. (Hons.)
ABSTRACT
A lot more to this article but found this interesting.
HOW DOES TESTOSTERONE CAUSE AGGRESSION?
Testosterone acts as a prohormone which when converted into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (5a-DHT)
acts on sustgen receptors or when converted into estradiol by the enzyme aromatase, acts on estrogen
receptors (Figure 1). There is overwhelming evidence that most of the effects of testosterone in mediating
aggression occur after aromatization (33). For example, testosterone induced aggression is concurrent with an elevated level of aromatization and nuclear estrogen receptor activity in the hypothalamic/preoptic area.
Treatment with an aromatase inhibitor blocked this aggression and lowered nuclear activated estrogen
receptors (34,35). Furthermore the intensity of aggressive behaviour was directly correlated with the
aromatase activity (p < 0.02) in the posterior hypothalamus (34)
So it appears that aggression is not directly caused by test but by the aromatazation of test. Thought's anyone??
32 Copyright 2001 by MJM
REVIEW ARTICLE
The Role of Testosterone in Aggression
Katherine Simpson *† , B.Sc. (Hons.)
ABSTRACT
A lot more to this article but found this interesting.
HOW DOES TESTOSTERONE CAUSE AGGRESSION?
Testosterone acts as a prohormone which when converted into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (5a-DHT)
acts on sustgen receptors or when converted into estradiol by the enzyme aromatase, acts on estrogen
receptors (Figure 1). There is overwhelming evidence that most of the effects of testosterone in mediating
aggression occur after aromatization (33). For example, testosterone induced aggression is concurrent with an elevated level of aromatization and nuclear estrogen receptor activity in the hypothalamic/preoptic area.
Treatment with an aromatase inhibitor blocked this aggression and lowered nuclear activated estrogen
receptors (34,35). Furthermore the intensity of aggressive behaviour was directly correlated with the
aromatase activity (p < 0.02) in the posterior hypothalamus (34)
So it appears that aggression is not directly caused by test but by the aromatazation of test. Thought's anyone??
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